Module 3 MCQ
1. Which of the following statements best describes the current situation with malaria?
a. This is a common disease, but the symptoms are mild, and it is readily treated
b. This is an old disease that has learned new tricks, e.g. resistance to antimicrobials
c. This is a new emerging disease that is spread by direct contact transmission
d. This is an insect disease that does not usually cause problems for humans
e. This is an insect-borne illness that is easily controlled by using insecticides
2. What does GRAS mean?
a. Green-fluorescent RNA standard
b. Generally recognized as safe
c. Gene resolving antibody system
d. Greater resolution after staining
e. Genetically recombinant and soluble
3. What is the role of methanogens in the carbon cycle?
a. Oxidizing methane
b. Hydrolyzing methane
c. Reducing methane
d. Producing methane
e. Consuming methane
4. What does ‘normal flora’ mean?
a. Microbes that are found in soil
b. Microbes that do not cause disease
c. Microbes that are not genetically-engineered
d. Microbes that are found only in one location
e. Microbes commonly associated with the human body
5. What is an important component of the ‘One Health’ philosophy?
a. That human health is more important than animal or plant health
b. That the health of the environment directly impacts on human health
c. That humans need to get sick sometimes to allow plants and animals to thrive
d. That the needs of the many outweigh the needs of the few
e. That antibacterial compounds need to be used more widely to maintain health
6. Why are microbes like E.coli especially useful for biotechnology?
a. Because they can be grown at any desired scale
b. Because they die in the environment if they escape the lab
c. Because they cannot cause disease
d. Because they are part of our normal flora
e. Because they do not easily transfer genes to other species
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7. Are recombinant vaccines safer than older ‘killed’ vaccines? Why?
a. Yes, because they don’t provoke an immune response
b. No, because they are derived from genetically-modified organisms
c. No, because they don’t offer effective prevention against disease
d. No, because they still contain live microbes
e. Yes, because they do not contain the whole organism that causes the disease
8. What is the importance of the selectable marker in plasmids used to create GMOs?
a. It allows the gene from the source organism, (like green fluorescent protein from jellyfish), to be selected
b. It allows the plasmid to copy itself
c. It allows the genes on the plasmid to be expressed
d. It allows cells to take up the plasmid
e. It allows only those cells that have taken up the plasmid to be isolated
9. Why was Pasteur’s experiment with the swan-necked flasks so important?
a. It directly led to the van Leeuwenhoek’s invention of the microscope
b. It disproved the theory of spontaneous generation
c. It disproved Koch’s postulates
d. It proved the theory of spontaneous generation
e. It proved Koch’s postulates
10. Global warming is partly due to increased atmospheric levels of CO2 and CH4. Which of the following
microbes would be helpful in minimizing global warming?
a. Heterotrophs
b. Decomposers
c. Methanogens
d. Detritovores
e. Methanotrophs
11. Why are GMO microbes especially useful for biotechnology?
a. They are safer to handle compared to wild-type microbes
b. The legal complexities are easier to manage than for wild-type microbes
c. They allow production of large amounts of useful proteins
d. They survive well in the environment e.g. for bioremediation
e. They typically grow more rapidly than the corresponding wild-type strain
12. Which of the following options is correct for the pathogen’s statement
a. Most pathogens are viruses, such as coronavirus, influenza virus
b. Pathogens can come from normal flora
c. Antibiotics can be taken after pathogens cause diseases
d. Pathogens that appear in humans do not infect animals
HD EDUCATION
13. Why does the treatment of TB continue to have new problems
a. Because the virus will spread in the air
b. It no longer responds to retroviral therapy
c. The virus is constantly evolving and therefore antibiotic resistance
d. No new vaccine has been developed yet
e. All options are incorrect
14. A scientist is trying to make insulin by inserting the insulin gene into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid
into a bacterium. Unfortunately, the scientist forgot to include an origin of replication in the plasmid. Which
of the following is the most likely consequence and why?
a. Low insulin production; the insulin gene can be translated but the bacterium cannot duplicate the
plasmid
b. The bacterium will die; an origin of replication on a plasmid is necessary for survival
c. No insulin will be produced; the insulin gene cannot be translated without an origin of replication
d. Very high insulin production; a lack of an origin of replication increases translation
e. The bacterium will produce insulin as if there were an origin of replication; it is not necessary
15. Global warming is partly due to increased atmospheric levels of CO2 and CH4. Which of the following
microbes would be least helpful in minimising global warming?
a. Methanotrophs
b. Methanogens
c. Decomposers
d. Autotroph-heterotroph symbionts
e. Autotrophs
16. In modern medicine, genetically modified organisms are often used to produce vaccines. Are these
vaccines safe to use?
a. No, because they only contain the gene fragments of the organism, the immune system will not respond
strongly to this
b. No, because GMO is risky
c. Yes, because they do not contain the entire organism that causes the disease
d. No, because they are not effective in preventing diseases
e. No, because they still contain live microorganisms
17. Which of the following stages is the last stage involved in the integration of a new DNA sequence in a
plasmid into a bacterial cell?
a. Amplification
b. Restriction digestion
c. Ligation
d. Transformation
e. Sequencing
HD EDUCATION
18. What is the difference between fermentation and cellular respiration
a. Fermentation and cellular respiration are not comparable
b. If there is no oxygen, it will enter the fermentation process after undergoing glycolysis
c. Fermentation is aerobic cellular respiration
d. Cellular respiration requires oxygen, while fermentation requires carbon dioxide
e. Cellular respiration needs to break down glucose, while fermentation is to break down carbohydrates
19. The work of which of these scientists led directly to the development of the germ theory of disease?
a. Antonie van Leeuwekhoek
b. Howard Florey
c. Louis Pasteur
d. John Needham
e. Robert Koch
20.Which of the following is an example of a “cloning vector”
a. Circular DNA
b. Linear DNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. Ribosomal RNA
e. Bacterial DNA
21. Which of the following statements about coral symbiosis is correct
a. Alage and coral are in competition
b. Corals provide sugar for algae as nutrition
c. Alage provides oxygen to corals
d. Alage is a chemoautotrophic organism
e. Alage and coral are in a symbiotic relationship
22. Which of the following can account for how a pathogen might cause disease?
a. It’s abundance can be too high
b. It can be in the wrong location
c. All other answers are potentially correct
d. It can possess virulence factors
e. The host can have a compromised immune system
23. Which of the following is the reason why viruses can be used in biotechnology?
a. They can transfer genes into bacterial cells
b. They are the source of thermostable polymerases
c. They are the source of most antibiotics
d. Viruses contain plasmid and viral DNA, so they can be used as vectors
e. All options are incorrect
HD EDUCATION
24. Which human body site have the greatest diversity of microbes?
a. Throat
b. Skin
c. Genital tract
d. Nasal cavity
e. All body sites would display similar diversity
25. Which of the following options is wrong about the statement of the methanotrophs?
a. They are good for the environment
b. They consume methane and produce carbon dioxide
c. They can convert TCE epoxide into TCE and decompose
d. They are heterotrophic organisms
e. Their role in the carbon cycle is to convert organic matter into inorganic matter
26. Who was the first person to discover bacteria
a. Robert Hooke
b. Leeuwenhoek
c. John Needham
d. Robert Koch
e. Lazzaro Spallanzani
27. Hydrocarbon degrading bacteria are most useful in …
a. Producing CO2 and taking up methane
b. Produce beer
c. Slow the effect of climate change
d. Cleaning up oil spills
e. Killing antibiotic-resistant bacteria
28. What is an example of a product most commonly manufactured in a GMO microbe?
a. Alcohol
b. Vaccine
c. CO2
d. Sugar
e. Cellulose
29. The biotechnology industry faces some particular challenges. Which of the following is currently a
limiting factor on the biotechnology industry?
a. Small amounts of DNA data in public databases
b. Difficulty in cutting/copying/ligating DNA in controlled lab conditions
c. Inserting new genes into host organisms successfully
d. Society’s distrust of GMOs and their products
e. Generating economically viable products from GMOs
HD EDUCATION
30. The following statement about the gut microbiome is the most correct: the gut microbiome…
a. Different dietary habits will lead to different gut microbiomes
b. Can cause an immune response
C. Can be removed without negatively affecting its host
d. Mainly composed of fungi
e. There is no gut microbiome in the baby at birth
31. Normal flora…
a. is a group of species often found in many different locations
b. Reduced immunity will cause the normal flora to disappear
c. Obtained from mother early in life
d. Mainly fungi
e. Both a and c
32. If yeast was not added in the beer-making process, which of the following would be the most likely
consequence?
a. No CO2 would be produced, but alcohol would be
b. No CO2 or alcohol would be produced
c. No alcohol would be produced, but CO2 would be
d. There would be no effect
e. No sugar would be produced
33. Which of the following statements best describes the current HIV infection situation?
a. This is an animal disease and usually does not cause problems for humans
b. HIV now has antibiotic resistance
c. Patients infected with HIV will have a long incubation period
d. This is a disease acquired through contact
e. This is a disease that can be spread through the air
34. Why is the treatment of HIV always a social problem?
a. Wearing a condom cannot avoid the spread of HIV
b. Social stigma
c. Antiretroviral therapy cannot reduce the spread of the virus
d. Because bacteria will continue to multiply in the body
e. All options are correct
35. A common name for Saccharomyces is…
a. Penicilium
b. Brewer’s yeast
c. Lactic acid bacteria
d. Kombucha
e. Probiotics
HD EDUCATION
Module 4 MCQ
1. In a hypothetical situation, a bacterium lives on the surface of a leaf where it obtains nutrients from the
leaf’s nonliving waxy covering, which the leaf continually produces. The plant is not hurt or harmed by this
feeding. Once the number of bacteria reaches a critical mass, they inhibit the growth of other microbes that
damage the plant. Occasionally, these bacteria can gain access to the interior of the leaf, for example, if there
is weather-related leaf breakage the exposes the plant’s interior tissues. If this occurs, the bacteria feed on the
plant’s living tissue, causing minor damage. What sequences best describes the ecological roles played by the
bacterium in this situation?
a. Commensalism > parasitism > mutualism
b. Parasitism > commensalism > mutualism
c. Mutualism > parasitism > commensalism
d. Mutualism > commensalism > parasitism
e. Commensalism > mutualism > parasitism
2. How is it possible that a community could have low species diversity, but high species richness?
a. If there were low numbers of individuals in each species
b. If most of the individuals belonged to a single species
c. If the individuals had a perfectly even distribution among the species
d. If there was one or two rare species
e. Few species and few individuals
3. An ecological community is best described as:
a. The immediate environment of a particular species
b. The biota and abiotic environment of a given area
c. A group of species that live and interact together
d. All of the populations for a given species
e. A group of individuals of the same species
4. The carrying capacity of a population (K):
a. Refers to the age structure of a population
b. Is the size of the population that the local environment can support over a specified period
c. Is the number of mature individuals in the population
d. Is reached when the number of deaths is greater than the number of births
e. Is calculated as the sum of the number of survivors in each cohort within a population
5. Which of the following is an example of a trophic cascade?
a. A mountain lion population migrates upwards toward the peak of a mountain in response to climate change
b. A plant is consumed by an herbivore, which is consumed by a carnivore
c. Trees are removed from a forest and a shrub species takes over
d. A mass mortality of a species of bird results in increased numbers of herbivorous insects and decreased
biomass of grass
e. A dolphin gains only 10% of the energy of 10 kilograms of fish that it has eaten
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6. A population includes:
a. All races of individuals within a single species
b. All individuals of the same species in a defined geographic area
c. All organisms found in a certain area
d. All individuals of a species that are capable of interbreeding
e. An assemblage of different species in the same area
7. The largest storage pools of water on Earth are those in:
a. Icecaps and glaciers
b. Oceans
c. Ground water
d. Freshwater lakes
e. Soil moisture
8. Species richness:
a. Measures differences in species diversity between communities
b. Is one of the more complex measures of community diversity
c. Is a measure of the diversity of a species’ abundance within various communities
d. Is a count of the number of species in a community
e. Incorporates population sizes into a measure of species diversity
9. Which of the following strategies for habitat restoration is specifically designed to alleviate habitat
fragmentation?
a. Establishment of biological corridors
b. Designation of protected habitat
c. Pollution cleanup
d. Captive breeding programs
e. Removing introduced species
10. A population is in an exponential phase of growth. What would act to slow this growth?
a. diminishing food resources
b. increased prey availability
c. increasing nesting territory
d. decreased predator populations
e. increased habitat availability
11. A population would be most likely to likely have a low growth rate under what condition?
a. Short generation time
b. Large number of reproductive females
c. Large number of young individuals
d. Abundant resources and little predation or disease
e. Near carrying capacity
HD EDUCATION
12. The single greatest cause of global species extinction in the next half century will most likely be:
a. Urban air pollution
b. Global warming
c. Rise in sea level
d. Tropical deforestation
e. Competition with introduced species
13. CO2, N2O and CH4 are examples of:
a. ozone-depleting gases
b. inorganic fertilizers
c. All of these answers
d. greenhouse gases
e. CFCs
14. An example of what a community ecologist would study is:
a. The interactions among several species of fish, the aquatic vegetation, and other animal species in a coral
reef habitat
b. Competition between clown fish and angel fish in the same coral reef habitat
c. The interactions between individual clown fish in a coral reef habitat
d. How male and female clown fish differ in their response to changing environmental conditions in a coral
reef habitat
e. How several species of fish and the surrounding aquatic vegetation react to changing abiotic features in a
coral reef habitat
15. An organism’s environment can be viewed in terms of biotic and abiotic factors. Which of the following
is part of a plant’s biotic environment, as opposed to its abiotic environment?
a. Pollinators
b. Temperature
c. Soil
d. Rainfall
e. Light
16. The intermediate disturbance hypothesis suggests that when disturbances are at a low level:
a. diversity will be maximised.
b. diversity will be lower than the maximum.
c. competition will be low.
d. competitive exclusion will occur.
e. resources will become limiting.
17. Which one of the following is at the lowest trophic level?
a. Heterotrophs
b. Autotrophs
c. Decomposers
d. Scavengers
e. Top-level consumers
HD EDUCATION
18. Restoration ecology seeks to:
a. restore ecosystems to the same state they were in prior to human habitation.
b. return communities to intermediate stages so that natural succession can advance them to more natural
climax states.
c. restore species diversity in a community to a level where all populations approach carrying capacity.
d. restore the natural environment to a level where it is infinitely sustainable.
e. restore degraded lands and habitats to as close as possible to their pre-disturbed condition.
19. Which is an example of the local cycle
a. Water cycle
b. Phosphorus cycle
c. Carbon cycle
d. Nitrogen cycle
e. All options are correct
20. A species of orchid produces flowers that mimic the appearance and odor of a female wasp of a particular
species. Male wasps that attempt to mate with the flower inadvertently pollinate the flower. The orchid is
unable to be pollinated by any other species. Recently, increased use of pesticides have caused major declines
in the wasp population. Which of the following threats is most likely to directly lead to the orchid’s
extinction?
a. Co-extinction
b. Alien species
c. Overhunting
d. Overpopulation
e. Habitat loss
21. Two species of plants previously never hybridised because they flowered at different times of the year.
Recent changes in atmospheric temperature have caused spring to begin earlier in the year, and these plants
are now found to be hybridising. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this
hybridisation?
a. Altered phenology
b. Habitat disturbance
c. Secondary contact
d. Altered genetics
e. None of these options is plausible
22. Two communities of organisms are sampled in an experiment. Community 1 contains species X, Y and Z,
while community 2 contains species A, B and C. Which of the following statements about α and β diversity is
most correct?
a. α diversity is the same in both samples, β diversity is high
b. α diversity is the same in both samples, β diversity is low
c. β diversity is the same in both samples, α diversity is high
d. β diversity is the same in both samples, α diversity is low
e. This information does not allow us to answer questions about α and β diversity
HD EDUCATION
23. In a mark-recapture experiment, 34 individuals were captured, marked and released. Subsequently, 20
individuals were recaptured, and 4 of those individuals were marked.
From this, what would be the estimated population size?
a. 2720
b. 170
c. 680
d. 136
e. 80
24. Which of the following is the best explanation of why behaviour is evolutionarily significant?
a. Behaviour can influence the number of offspring that are produced
b. Behaviours can influence community interactions
c. Behaviours help to define trophic roles
d. Behaviours involve interactions with the abiotic and biotic environment
e. Behaviour is not evolutionarily significant
25. Which of the following human activities has had the greatest impact on the Australian environment?
a. European settlement that changed grazing regimes markedly
b. The use of fire-stick farming by Aborigines over the last 40 000 years
c. Impact of rabbits and cane toads
d. Over the last 200 years, extensive land clearing and introduction of exotic species
e. Over-exploitation of water resources
26. When a habitat becomes fragmented, the probability that species will go extinct in patches is likely to be
highest when:
a. patches are long broad strips on roadsides.
b. species in patches hybridise.
c. patches are large but geographically isolated.
d. patches are small and geographically isolated.
e. intraspecific competition in patches is high.
27. Consider the following food chain: Grasses -> Beetles -> Lizards -> Birds -> Cats Which of the following
organisms would most affected by bioaccumulation?
a. Cats
b. Birds
c. Lizards
d. Beetles
e. Grasses
28. Silent Spring describes
a. The harm of antibiotics to humans
b. The negative impact of climate change on the environment
c. Negative effects of pesticides on birds and other animals
d. Persistent damage to the environment caused by oil spills
e. The harm of greenhouse gas emissions to ecology
HD EDUCATION
29. When would Population Viability Analysis be the most useful?
a. To predict the survival of a small population
b. To predict the survival of a large population
c. To predict the age structure of a population
d. To estimate the size of a population
e. To estimate the movement of a population
30. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why the population growth curve for an animal
population would have a ‘sawtooth’ appearance?
a. The animal reproduces once a year
b. The animal reproduces continually
c. The environment is nearing its carrying capacity
d. Resources are abundant in the environment
e. The environment has experienced a large-scale disturbance
31. Ecology is the study of how all of the living and non-living factors in an environment interact. What are
the levels of ecology, from the smallest level to largest level?
a. Biosphere, Ecosystem, Community, Population, Organism
b. Community, Biosphere, Population, Ecosystem, Organism
c. Population, Organism, Community, Biosphere, Ecosystem
d. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere
e. Organism, community, Population, Ecosystem, Biosphere
32. A population of minnows in a pond is growing under natural conditions with limited resources. As the
minnow population increases in size, how will its rate of growth affect its population density?
a. As the population grows, population density decreases. As a result, the rate of population growth
eventually increases.
b. As the population grows, population density becomes unstable. As a result, population growth stops.
c. As the population grows, population density remains constant. As a result, population growth increases.
d. As the populations grows, population density increases. As a result, the rate of population growth
eventually slows.
33. In a closed population, which of the following processes would most likely drive population growth?
a. Births
b. Deaths
c. Immigration
d. Emigration
e. Births and immigration
34. What determines the carrying capacity of an environment?
a. the number of organisms that immigrate into the environment
b. the climate
c. the availability of resources in the environment
d. the rate at which disease spreads through the population
e. the size of the population of organisms living in the environment
HD EDUCATION
35. A population would be most likely to have a high growth rate under what condition?
a. long generation time
b. not near carrying capacity
c. small number of reproductive females
d. small number of young individuals
e. scarce resources and high levels of predation or disease
祝大家 HD
ByeBye 🙂
HD EDUCATION
From
Molecules to
Ecosystems
Biol1xx7 – 2021
Lecture 2A -The Chemistry of Life:
Life
Prof Jacqui Matthews
COMMONWEALTH OF AUSTRALIA
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Do not remove this notice
1
Some Top Tips For Module 1
Lectures
•
For each mini-lecture I will provide but won’t go through
– 1) Learning Outcomes
– 2) Text book references.
– 3) A glossary for each lecture.
•
I will often refer to ideas/concepts briefly that will get fleshed out in
later lectures (mine or others – I will often indicate which lecture)
• I will go over main concepts in a lot of detail.
• There is a supplementary minilecture Chemistry for Molecular
Biology that goes over some of the chemistry concepts/terms I use
in a bit more detail – as a minimum look at the take home points and
make sure you are comfortable with them.
2
A note about my textbook references
There isn’t a recommended textbook for this course, any good Biochemistry text book will
cover most of the topics in this Module; Lehninger – “Principles of Biochemistry” or Stryer
(Actually Berg Tymoczko & Stryer – “Biochemistry” are both good basic texts that will be
helpful to have on hand if you are thinking of studying Biochemistry in the next few years. I
still often refer to Lehninger when I want to check details or refresh topics.
Use the lecture slides as a guide to what you should focus on and what depth to go into.
I’ll include references links – for two on-line text books https://openstax.org/books/biology-2e (start here – it will usually have the appropriate
level of information for this course) and https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK21154/
(this is an older edition of Stryer but the fundamental concepts are still valid; it often goes
into more depth than you need for this course, but the explanations are a bit different
so it may suit some of you better, or you might want a bit deeper understanding). Note that
sometimes there is just a small part of the link that is useful to the particular mini-lecture.
You can find a lot of information on Wikipedia or other internet sites. Wikipedia seems
pretty accurate for this type of thing, but be aware that both it and random internet
searches go straight to complex details/exceptions and controversies that can be
misleading when you are still learning, whereas a good textbook sticks to the
fundamentals and well established facts or theories.
3
Learning Outcomes 2A
1. Appreciate the common origins and makeup of
the molecules of life.
2. Explore the properties of living organisms.
3. Appreciate that life is made up of a small
number of elements of which carbon is
particularly important
4. Define the terms polar/hydrophilic and nonpolar/hydrophobic
4
Textbook
Biology 2e
1.2-Themes-and-conceptsof-biology
– Properties of Life
– Levels of Organization of
Living Things
– The Diversity of Life
Stryer
Not very useful for this
minilecture as the
information is widely
distributed in different
sections
2.3 Carbon (introduction)
5
Context
• Genetic material is
shared through
generations
• Encodes the
molecules of life
• All species share
common genes and
cellular functionalities
6
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
7
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
8
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
9
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
10
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
A steady internal environment
From the Greek:
Homeo = same
Stasis = steady
11
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
A Family Takes a Photo Every Year for 40 years! – Youtube -Bk0q-aRkDdk
12
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
13
What is life?
• Cell based
• Can reproduce
• Are complex and
organised
• Use energy for growth
and reproduction
• Tend towards
homeostasis
• Change over time
• Adapt to environment
• Respond to stimuli
14
Classifying living things*
Prokaryotes
(no nucleus)
Eukaryotes
(defined nucleus)
• 6 kingdoms
Eubacteria
• 3 domains
*There are alternate classifications with up to 8 kingdoms – split protists
15
https://learn.genetics.utah.edu/content/cells/scale/
16
Life is carbon based
• Can bond with itself AND
other elements in lots of
different ways
• All major biopolymers
have a substantially
carbon backbone
• “Sweet spot” of stability
(stable but not too stable)
for forming covalent
bonds
CH3CH2OH
CH4N2O
17
Essential elements for life
• Common
–
–
–
–
Carbon – C/C
Hydrogen – H/H
Nitrogen – N
Oxygen – O
• Smaller amounts
– Phosphorous – P
– Sulfur
-S
• Trace elements
(6 most common elements listed)
18
Hydrophobicity and polarity
•
C is inherently neutral
(uncharged/nonpolar) and
non-polar/hydrophobic
(water-hating) –
grey/white/black molecules will
be nonpolar
• O, N, P and sometimes S tend
to make compounds polar/
hydrophilic (water liking),
partly (dipoles) or fully charged
(i.e. molecules with those
atoms/colours will be polar)
• H is heavily influenced by what
its near (C/H neutral, O/N
polar).
Methane (CH4) is
non-polar
Urea (CH4N2O) is
non-polar
19
Glossary
• Charged – fully charged positive or negative (has gained or lost an
electron)
• Covalent bond – holds molecules together
• Dipole –has a partially positive and partially negative end
• Eukaryote – organism has cells with a defined nucleus (can be
single celled or multicellular)
• Homeostasis – Maintenance of a relatively constant internal
environment
• Hydrophilic – water liking/soluble in water
• Hydrophobic/non-polar – water hating/insoluble in water
• Polar – partly or fully charged/with a dipole
• Prokaryote – single celled organism without a nucleus
20
From
Molecules to
Ecosystems
Biol1xx7 -2021
Lecture 4A – The Central
Dogma of Molecular
Biology
Prof Jacqui Matthews
COMMONWEALTH OF AUSTRALIA
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1
Text book References
Biology 2e
15.1 The genetic code
Stryer –if you want more
details
1.1.2/3/4 DNA/RNA/Protein
flow of information
5.4.1 Several kinds of RNA
Start Here
2
Learning Outcomes 4A
中⼼心法则
1. Outline the central dogma of molecular biology and
describe the information flow between DNA, RNA and
Proteins
2. Define the genome, transcriptome and proteome and
how they differ from cell to cell.
3. Appreciate the difference in size and construction
between bacterial and eukaryotic genomes
3
The “Central Dogma of Molecular Biology”
Nucleotides
DNA
Replication
Amino acids
RNA
Protein
Reverse
Transcription
DNA
4
The key components
• The genome (the DNA)
• The transcriptome (the RNA)
• The proteome (the protein)
5
DNA as genetic store
• Double stranded –
provides two copies and
a template for repair.
Obvious mechanisms for
replication/transcription
via base-pairing
• Stable – not prone to
degradation; cells can
repair cytosine
deamination
容易易
退化
6
Genomes cell type and using
genetic information
• Same DNA in all of your
cells
– Complete genetic
information = genome
• Each cell uses a subset
of expressed genes to
achieve its structure and
function(s)
Spinach leaf: Scanning Electron Microscopy
– transcriptome and
proteome
– Will differ in response to
different stimuli/times
7
Bacterial Genomes
• Most prokaryotes
(bacteria and archea)
have circular
chromosomes
• Tend to be (relatively)
small. (12 kb – 15
Mb)
Circular chromosomal DNA
8
Small Genomes
⽀支原体
• Mycoplasma
Genetalia; Circular
dsDNA; 580,000 bp;
~470 predicted
coding regions
• Escherichia coli; ~5
million bp; ~40005000 coding regions
• Range from ~12kbp~15 million bp
⼤大肠杆菌
9
Eukaryotic Genomes
• Tend to be big (~10
Mb -150 Gb)
• Linear chromosomes
• Condensed into
chromatin
• Wrapped around
histone proteins
https://doi.org/10.1371/journal.pone.0164915
Flat worm chromosomes
10
The Human Genome
•
•
•
•
Eukaryotic
Linear
6 billion (6 x 109) bp
22 pairs of chromosomes
(plus the sex chromosomes)
• Encode ~20,000 proteins
• Often only one pair of copies
of each gene (one on each
chromosome pair = alleles).
11
Big genomes
• Paris japonica 149
billion base pairs (8
copies of 40
chromosomes)
• marbled lungfish 130
billion base pairs (2 x
28 chromosomes)
12
The Transcriptome
Genome
(DNA)
Transcriptome
RNA
Small
nuclear
RNA
Micro
RNA
Messenger
RNA
Ribosomal
RNA
Transfer
RNA
13
RNA as the messenger/some
functional properties
• mRNA is the message for
making proteins
• MicroRNA and snRNA
have regulatory roles
• Ribosomal RNA and
transfer RNA important
for protein synthesis
(Lecture 6)
Micro
RNA
Small
nuclear
RNA
Ribosomal
RNA
Transfer
RNA
14
RNA as the messenger/some
functional properties
•
•
•
•
•
•
mRNA – messenger RNA
encodes proteins
Multiple copies made,
designed to be used then
degraded
So can tolerate cytosine
deamination to uracil
Degradation via the ribose
OK to be less stable than DNA
mRNA production rates vary
(more in L5B)
cytosine
RNA only
uracil
15
The Proteome
Protein
Messenger
RNA
Folding
Ion
channels
receptors
Antibodies
Enzymes
Proteome
Transcription
factors
16
Proteins
• The amino acid sequence
determines the structure
which determines the
function.
• Proteins make up over
50% of the cell by dry
weight.
• Proteins give the cell its
shape, they form
receptors, enzymes,
hormones and growth
factors, toxins,
transporters and
antibodies.
Digizyme – pepping into a cell
100
17
Epigenetic regulation
The expression of some
genes is altered by
chemical modifications
of DNA and proteins but
NOT to the DNA itself epigenetics.
– Can be passed
through generations of
cells (and individuals)
X-inactivation is an example of epigenetics
https://letstalkscience.ca/educational-resources/
stem-in-context/science-behind-calico-cats-colours
18
Glossary
• Central Dogma of Molecular Biology – flow of genetic information
within a biological system (DNA>RNA>Protein)
• Chromosome – DNA molecule with part or all of the genome,
usually combined with proteins
• Epigenetics – DNA modifications that do not change the DNA
sequence can affect gene activity
• Genome – the complete genetic composition of a cell or species
• Proteome – the complete set of proteins expressed by an organism,
cell or tissue type.
• Transcriptome – the set of all RNA molecules in one cell or a
population of cells.
19
From
Molecules to
Ecosystems
Lecture 23A:
Individuals, behaviour & environment
Professor Chris Dickman
Slides prepared with input from A/Profs Clare McArthur & Will Figueira
COMMONWEALTH OF AUSTRALIA
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Learning Outcomes: A
1. Understand links between morphology, physiology and behaviour
2. Appreciate ecological & evolutionary significance of behaviour
3. Understand various behavioural strategies to obtain food and avoid
being food
4. Understand strategies used in reproductive behaviour
5. Understand whether behaviour is something only animals do
6. Appreciate the science behind our knowledge and understanding of
behaviour
Knox et al. (2014): 5th Edition, Chapter 31 as a stepping stone
Links to Practical Program
Behaviour provides the link between the environment and the abundance/
distribution of organisms, and is critical in effective species conservation
• Prac 11: Population size and conservation
• Prac 12: Species, assemblages and effects of pollution
Ecosystems
Ecosystems
ec
Communities
Species
Next:
Populations
Today:
Individuals
&
behaviour
Human footprint &
conservation
Behaviour
• Classically, about animals (but see later…)
• Coping mechanism = (1) Morphology + (2) Physiology + (3) Behaviour
• Behaviour = part of how organisms respond to the biotic & abiotic environment
• E.g. carnivores versus herbivores differ:
• in skull morphology, guts, gut flora, liver enzymes, metabolism …
• In behaviours: foraging strategies, social behaviour, communication …
Behaviour is fundamental
• e.g. Gelada baboon (Theropithecus gelada), foraging behaviour is linked to its:
1. morphology (teeth, guts)
2. physiology (capacity to digest plant cell wall in grass)
3. social behaviour (group size, conflict between feeding, safety, mates)
Behaviour affects
fitness
Mau M et al. (2011) American Journal of Primatology 73:449-457
Kerby et al. (2012) Manual graminivory and feeding rates in gelada
baboons. American Journal of Physical Anthropology 147:180-180
How can behaviour affect fitness?
• Fitness – an individual’s relative contribution to the next generation’s gene pool
• Example using plant-insect interactions:
• Insect herbivores consume vegetative parts of plants (e.g. leaves)
• Insects pollinate ~2/3 of all plants; often with food rewards (e.g. nectar)
• Does food quality affect butterfly reproductive success?
• does foraging on high quality food provide a fitness advantage?
Experimental evidence?
Test species: Coenonympha pamphilus – the small heath butterfly
Cahenzli F, Erhardt A (2012) Enhancing offspring quality or quantity? Different ways for using nectar
amino acids in female butterflies. Oecologia 169:1005-1014
How can behaviour affect fitness?
Evidence: Effect of feeding on high quality food
Fertiliser
level
Grass
(food for larvae)
Larvae
Adults
Food for
adults
Low-NAA
Dependent
variables:
(1) Egg quantity
(2) Hatching mass
(3) Others…
Low
High-AA
Low-NAA
High
Cahenzli F, Erhardt A (2012) Enhancing offspring quality or quantity? Different
ways for using nectar amino acids in female butterflies. Oecologia 169:1005-1014
High-AA
AA = supplemented with amino acids
NAA = not supplemented
How can behaviour affect fitness?
Evidence: feeding on high quality food reproductive output
(a surrogate measure of fitness)
160
c
Total no. eggs laid
140
120
100
bc
ab
a
80
Adult food quality:
AA – High
NAA – Low
Adult nectar quality P = 0.98
60
40
20
Larval diet quality P costs)
How do we know?
1. Observations: inter- and intra-specific comparisons
2. Manipulative experiments that test hypotheses
Behaviour in relation to:
1. abiotic environment
• e.g. lizard cooling feet on hot Namib desert sand
Behaviour in relation to:
1. abiotic environment
2. biotic environment
• forage
• win/choose mates
• escape/defend
Behaviour: 3 key aspects
1. Obtain food
1. Obtain food
2. Avoid becoming food
3. Reproduce
2. Avoid becoming food
3. Reproduce
(1) Behaviour: obtain food
• Foraging strategies are linked with morphology & physiology
Ambush predators:
Camouflage
prob. prey encounter
Peringuey’s adder,
southern Africa
Active predators:
Agile, fast
prob. prey encounter
Dingo
Ant-lion
Cheetah
(1) Behaviour: obtain food
Huge variety of foraging strategies, defined by
•
•
•
What they eat: frugivore, herbivore, nectivore, granivore,
gramnivore, insectivore, carnivore, omnivore…
How they get it: ambush vs. active
Diet breadth: specialist generalist
(1) Behaviour: obtain food
• Common feature of all foraging strategies
• non-random, i.e., individuals make foraging choices
• BUT how do they choose where to forage and what to eat?
Sifaka lemur (Propithecus candidus) in Madagascar
(1) Behaviour: obtain food
Optimal foraging theory1,2
•
Macarthur
Pianka
•
Marginal value theorem3
•
Krebs
modelled which food items to eat in a non-depleting
environment
predicts foragers should maximise net rate of food (=
energy) intake
•
modelled when to leave a food patch in a depleting
environment
predicts that foragers should leave food patches when
capture/harvest rate at patch costs
1. Carbone C, Thompson WA, Zadorina L, Rowcliffe JM (2003) Competition, predation risk and patterns of flock expansion in barnacle geese
(Branta leucopsis). Journal of Zoology 259:301-308
2. Hirsch BT (2011) Within-group spatial position in ring-tailed coatis: balancing predation, feeding competition, and social competition.
Behavioral Ecology and Sociobiology 65:391-399
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In the absorbance spectrum diagram below, the dotted line represents the absorbance of a normal
DNA sample, while the solid green line represents the absorbance spectrum of a sample where a step
in the extraction, or the quantification, has been missed. Which step is most likely to have been
missed in either the DNA extraction or the quantification?
O Protein precipitation
O RNA digestion
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Which of the following mechanisms increase rates of RNA transcription?
O Weak promoters
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O Strong promoters
Terminator sequences
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Backbone-backbone hydrogen bonding interactions are a key feature of which level of protein
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O Primary structure
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Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
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Predation by the dingo reduces the population size of kangaroos, and reduced grazing by kangaroos
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O succession
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Question 9
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Recent studies show that most of the Earth’s living species are:
O insects
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O mites
O green plants
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courses/37384/quizzes/161916/take/questions/1775545
In the absorbance spectrum diagram below, the dotted line represents the absorbance
DNA sample, while the solid green line represents the absorbance spectrum of a sam
in the extraction, or the quantification, has been missed. Which step is most likely to h
missed in either the DNA extraction or the quantification?
1.2
1.0
0.8
Absorbance
0.6
0.4
……..
0.2
0.0
230
250
270
290
310
330
Wavelength (nm)
Protein precipitation
RNA digestion
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are 65 questions each worth 1 mark.
exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
1 pts
Question 11
The need to consider the environment, animals and people in a unified way to manage health and
disease is known as
O The One Health concept
O The Emerging Infectious Diseases concept
O The New Microbiology concept
O The Zoonosis concept
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You want to compare non-treated cells with cells that are treated with an inhibitor of enzyme II.
How
would you expect the cellular concentrations of metabolites to change 10 min after adding the same
concentration of metabolite A to cells that are treated with the inhibitor?
O More of molecules (B and C) and less of molecule s (A,D and E)
O More of metabolites (A and B) and less of metabolites (C,D and E)
O No change in metabolite concentrations as cells are at equilibrium
O More of metabolites (A,B and C) and less of metabolite (C and D)
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1 pts
Question 22
Which biopolymer sequences correctly show DNA, RNA and Protein (in that order) in their standard
orientation?
O 5′-CCGGTACCTAG-3′; 5′-CCGGUACCUAG-3′; N-VYGGLACMLAG-C
O 3′-VYGGLACMLAG-5′; 3′-CCGGTACCTAG-5′; N-CCGGUACCUAG-C
O 5′-CCGGUACCUAG-3′; 5′-CCGGTACCTAG-3′; N-VYGGLACMLAG-C
dar
O 3-CCGGTACCTAG-5′; 3-CCGGUACCUAG-5′; C-VYGGLACMLAG-N
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Question 27
Which of the following correctly describes community stability?
O When a community maintains consistent species richness and composition
O When a community relies on constant changing of species.
O When a community shifts through many ecologically similar species.
O When a community relies on continual elemental cycling .
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Kuuuurune
You have two blood samples from the same patient that were tested for the presence of an enzyme
using an enzyme activity assay. The samples were treated in the same manner using the same
conditions including an excess of substrate. You made two samples, A and B. What can you
determine about the changes in enzyme concentration from the graph below?
14
12
10
8
Absorbance
6
.
4
2
0
14
18
20
16
8
12
4
10
2.
0
6
Time (min)
OAB
The enzyme concentration has increased by 50% in sample B.
O Nothing – You can’t assess enzyme concentration by this approach.
The enzyme concentration has halved in sample B.
O The enzyme concentration has doubled in sample B.
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There are 65 questions each worth 1 mark.
Your exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
Question 30
1 pts
Louis Pasteur is considered one of the founders of the science of microbiology because:
O he disproved the theory of spontaneous generation.
O he discovered antibiotics.
O he discovered the “life force” present in the air.
O he developed the first microscope.
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Question 36
1 pts
Read the following two statements and record whether they are correct or incorrect by answering
below:
A. Lichen and corals are both examples of a symbiosis between an autotroph and a heterotroph.
B. In corals, atmospheric CO2 is fixed into organic carbon by the algal partner, but in lichens the
inorganic carbon comes from the degradation of rocks by the fungal partner
O A & B are both correct
O A & B are both incorrect
O Ais incorrect and B is correct
A is correct and B is incorrect
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There are 65 questions each worth 1 mark.
Your exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
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Question 54
1 pts
Which statement about protein synthesis is correct?
O Cells easily synthesize proteins because peptide bond formation is favourable.
O The information about protein sequence originates from the DNA.
O Protein synthesis involves the conversion of amino acid to nucleic acid sequences.
O Correct protein sequences rely on base-pairing between RNA and amino acids.
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rexam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
Question 55
1 pts
a
Scientists are studying an endangered population of yellow-spotted fluffy-throated warbler (Setophaga
fictious) that lives in a forest that is proposed for a new coal mine. The warbler lives for six years and
breeds once a year, producing up to four chicks per brood. It mates for life. Juvenile mortality is high
compared to adult mortality (juvenile mortality = 80% +/- 5% EV; adult mortality 10% +/- 1%EV). The
population currently has 500 individuals, however, research has shown that up 700 +/- 25 birds can be
supported by the forest in its current condition.
The mine proposal will cut the habitat available to S. fictious by 33%. The scientists use a population
viability model, Vortex, to predict the likelihood of the population surviving 100 years if the mine is
approved. Models show the current situation in blue, and the green represents one of the variables
being modelled: adult mortality, carrying capacity, juvenile mortality, or size of the starting population.
Which of the following model outputs would best represent the scenario of impacts of the proposed
mine?
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Question 53
1 pts
Which of the following sketches most accurately represents RNA?
O
P
Base
Ribose
P
Base
Ribose
P.
Base
Ribose
-ОН
O
Base
Base
Base
Base
P
Ribose
Р
Ribose
Р
Ribose
P
Ribose
OH
º
P
Ribose
Base
P
Ribose
Base
P
Ribose
Base
-ОН
Base
Base
Base
Base
&
Р
Ribose
OH
Р
Ribose
Ribose
P
Р
Ribose
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rexam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
Question 55
1 pts
a
Scientists are studying an endangered population of yellow-spotted fluffy-throated warbler (Setophaga
fictious) that lives in a forest that is proposed for a new coal mine. The warbler lives for six years and
breeds once a year, producing up to four chicks per brood. It mates for life. Juvenile mortality is high
compared to adult mortality (juvenile mortality = 80% +/- 5% EV; adult mortality 10% +/- 1%EV). The
population currently has 500 individuals, however, research has shown that up 700 +/- 25 birds can be
supported by the forest in its current condition.
The mine proposal will cut the habitat available to S. fictious by 33%. The scientists use a population
viability model, Vortex, to predict the likelihood of the population surviving 100 years if the mine is
approved. Models show the current situation in blue, and the green represents one of the variables
being modelled: adult mortality, carrying capacity, juvenile mortality, or size of the starting population.
Which of the following model outputs would best represent the scenario of impacts of the proposed
mine?
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Which of the following model outputs would best represent the scenario of impacts of the proposed
mine?
1.0
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
20
40
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
Adult mortality 13%
1.07
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
20
40
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
Starting population (n = 335)
1.0-
0.8+
SE#
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bility of
vival
0.6+
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HOL1007_BIOL1907 Fina X
+
ydney.edu.au/courses/37384/quizzes/161916/take/questions/1775557
O
1.0-
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
20
40
+
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
Starting population (n = 335)
1.07
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
20
40
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
K= 469
1.07
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
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100
.
0.0
0
Il auto.proctoru.com IETE#ER.
Years
PAGES
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7
9
3
5
8
4
6
60
80
Years
100
Current scenario
Starting population (n = 335)
O
1.0-
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
+
20
40
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
K= 469
1.01
0.8+
0.6+
Probability of
survival
0.4+
0.2+
0.0
0
20
40
60
80
100
Years
Current scenario
Juvenile mortality – 87%
E
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tions/1775554
Your exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
D
Question 58
1 pts
A 5g soil sample was collected from the University of Sydney quadrangle. The soil was suspended in
10ml of sterile water and plated at different dilutions. The first plate was made by plating 100ml of the
soil suspension on a nutrient agar plate. To start the serial dilutions, another 100ml of the original soil
suspension was transferred to an Eppendorf tube containing 900ml of sterile water. This was mixed
before 100ml of the first dilution was plated on a nutrient agar and another 100ml transferred to
another Eppendorf tube containing 900ml of sterile water soil. The process of plating and diluting was
done two more times.
After the plates were incubated and the counts were made, the following values were obtained:
El 60
CFUs on plate
???
soil suspension
10
soil sample
5
dilution factor*
1.00E+04
CFU density in
soil sample cfu/g
3.40E+06
*The colony forming units (cfu) on the plate labelled “10-4″ was counted.
Identify which of the following plates will have the correct number of CFUs to fill in the missing number
(???) in the table.
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counted.
Identify which of the following plates will have the correct number of CFUs to fill in the missing number
(???) in the table.
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Question 59
1 pts
The following mRNA sequence encodes a fragment of a peptide
sequence: AUCAUGCCCGCUAGA
Second letter
‘U
с
А
G
UUU }phe
C}Tyr
U
UCU
UCC
UCA
UCG
UGC}cys
UUC
UUA
UUG
Ser
UAUT
UGU
U
UACS
С
UAA Stop UGA Stop A
UAG Stop UGG TIP G
}Leu
ODOC
His
C
CUU
CUC
CUA
CUG
Leu
CCU
CCC
CCA
CCG
Pro
CAU
CAC
CAA
CAG
CGUT
CGC
Arg
CGA
CGG
DOTO
U
C
A
G
Gin
First letter
}
C’}
Third letter
AAUL
Asn
AAC
AGU
AGC
AGA
{}ser
AUU
ACU
AUC lle ACC
AUA
ACA
AUG Met ACG
А
Thr
AAA } LYS
AAG
AGG }arg
G
GUU
GUC
G
GUA
GUG
GCU
GCC
GCA
GCG
GAC }Asp
Val
GGU
GGC
Gly
GGA
GGG
U
C
A
Ala
GAA
GAG
OTO
Sony
@}”
Glu
G
Figure This figure shows the genetic code for translating each
nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a
protein. (credit: modification of work by NIH)
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Using the codon table abov..
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You only have one attempt at this exam. To navigate to the NEXT or previous questions use the arrows. Do NOT hit the
“submit quiz” button (below next button) until you have answered all quiz questions. You will not be able to get back into
the Quiz if you submit it early. If you have technical difficulties, you will need to take screenshots etc. as proof and apply
for special consideration.
There are 65 questions each worth 1 mark.
Your exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
D
Question 60
1 pts
Which molecule is correctly matched to its function in protein synthesis?
O Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase matches the amino acid to the codon via its anticodon.
Messenger RNA recognises the amino acids to be added to the growing protein chain.
Ribosomes add the correct amino acids to transfer RNAs.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase attaches the correct amino acid to tRNA.
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Where n = the total number of individual organisms of each different species, and
N = the total number of individuals of all species.
Which park had the highest average Simpson’s Index of Diversity?
X
Quadrat 3
Quadrat 2
Quadrat 1
O
++
X
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Quadrat
rat 1
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Quadrat 1
Quadrat 2
Quadrat 3
X
X
X
Quadrat 1
Quadrat 2
Quadrat 3
* * *
X X X X X X
xxx
X X X X X
X X X X X
* * * * *
* * *
* * * *
X X X X X
X X X X X
* * * * *
Quadrat 3
Quadrat 1
Quadrat 2
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Quadrat 2
Quadrat 3
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X X X X X
XX
X X X X X
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X X X X X
X X X X X
X X X X X
*
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Quadrat 2
Quadrat 3
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Quadrat 3
Quadrat 2
Quadrat 1
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Pseudomonas fluorescens on King’s B agar
Pseudomonas fluorescens on King’s B Agar under UV light
о
Streptococcus pyogenes on Nutrient Agar (NA)
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exam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
1 pts
Question 64
“Some species of bacteria are fastidious.”
Which of the following is the most relevant image that either shows or contains the platels that support
the statement?
O
22
III)
Pseudomonas fluorescens on King’s B Agar under UV light
Pseudomonas fluorescens on King’s B agar
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Streptococcus pyogenes on Nutrient Agar (NA)
Streptococcus pyogenes on Blood Agar (BA)
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Nutrient agar (NA)
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Bacillus subtilis
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Bacillus subtilis on Nutrient agar (NA)
Serratia marcescens on Nutrient agar (NA)
Streptococcus pneumoniae on Nutrient Agar (NA)
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Streptococcus pneumoniae on Nutrient Agar (NA)
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Streptococcus pneumoniae on Blood Agar (BA)
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rexam is 1 hours and 40 minutes long (100 minutes)
>
1 pts
Question 65
Chickpea plants were grown in two different locations varying in average yearly rainfall, with
environment A approximately double the average yearly rainfall compared to environment B. Both
environments have the same soil type and are at approximately the same latitude. From the following
list, which data should you collect to support the hypothesis “Chickpeas in environment A will show
higher growth than in environment B”?
1. Levels of rainfall in both environments.
2. Total biomass at the end of the experiment in both environments.
3. Soil pH
4. Wind strength and direction
O 1, 2, and 3
O 2 and 3
0 1 and 4
О 1 and 2
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Question 45
1 pts
In the diagram below, channel and carrier proteins are moving molecules across the cell membrane.
The arrows indicate the direction of movement. Which molecule is being moved by active transport?
V
V
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